According to the paper what has happened to union power in Britain and why? To what extent do these changes represent a deliberate “policy bias” (p6)
What theoretical ideas are proposed for the fall in wage share in the UK? (p10-12)
Using evidence from Figures 1-3: is the UK typical of the rest of Europe and have changes here also occurred on the continent?
What other bargaining models are available (see Table 1.1) and why do institutional bargaining arrangements matter?
Discuss the cross-sectional evidence in Table 1.2 on causes of declining wage share in Europe.
According to the paper, what are the macro-economic implications of declining wage share, and why?
Suggest practical policy measures to increase the size of the wage share of GDP in the UK moving forward.
